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Notes

2013-12-17 16:56:48

2014-02-13 03:44:42

Rom 9:14 Τί οὖν ἐροῦμεν; Deliberative Future - Asks a question that implies some doubt about the response. Can be either cognitive or volitional... Cognitive - "How will we?" Volitional - "Should we? Thus the force of such questions is one of "oughtness." (Wall p 570) Therefore, "What ought we to say?" seems the best translation. μὴ ἀδικία παρὰ τῷ θεῷ; παρὰ - BDAG: (B4) marker of connection of a quality or characteristic w. a pers., with (οὐκ) ἔστιν τι παρά τινι someth. is (not) with or in someone, someone has someth. (nothing) to do w. someth. (Demosth. 18, 277 εἰ ἔστι καὶ παρʼ ἐμοί τις ἐμπειρία ; Gen 24:25; Job 12:13; Ps 129:4 παρὰ σοι ὁ ἱλασμός ἐστιν ; Just., D. 82, 1 παρὰ … ἡμῖν … χαρίσματα ) οὐκ ἔστιν προσωπολημψία παρὰ τ. θεῷ Ro 2:11 (TestJob 43, 13). Cp. 9:14 ; Eph 6:9 ; Js 1:17. Sim. Mt 8:10 ; 2 Cor 1:17. Moo p 591 footnote: "It may reflect the Hebrew עִם" ἀδικία "I have already argued in the exegesis of 3:1–8 that that section anticipates the discussion in Rom. 9–11, and thus the echo of the question in 3:5 suggests that the connection between the two sections is not merely verbal. This has implications for our understanding of ἀδικία ( adikia , unrighteousness) in 9:14 since in chapter 3 God’s righteousness is related to his “faithfulness” (πίστις, pistis , 3:3) and “truth” (ἀληθής, alēthēs , true, 3:4; ἀλήθεια, alētheia , truth, 3:7; cf. Piper 1993: 94–96)." (Schreiner p 506) μὴ γένοιτο "Obviously, Paul's usage of μὴ γένοιτο is not the same as Luke's (see Luk 20:16). Here it indicates, as it usually does, his repulsion at the thought that someone might infer an erroneous conclusion from the previous argument. The apostle could have expressed his sentiment with ού μή γένηται, except that the optative seems to appeal to the volition: You should never conclude such a thing! God forbid that you should think this! No way! and the like." (Wall p 482) Rom 9:15 γὰρ "The γάρ ( gar , for) introducing verse 15 is most naturally interpreted as providing a reason or explanation why God is not unrighteous (Cranfield 1979: 482). Other verses that emulate the pattern of the question found in verse 14 are invariably followed with an explanation or reason that demonstrates the falsity of the wrong conclusion (cf. 3:5–6; 6:1–5; 7:7–11; cf. Piper 1993: 99). Thus verse 15 must be taken seriously as an argument that explains why God is not unrighteous to choose some and reject others regardless of their works." (Schreiner p 506) λέγει Perfective Present - Technically a "contextual perfective present" (introductory formula). The subject is assumed to be God, since the OT and God's words are one and the same to the author. ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ... ὃν ἂν οἰκτίρω. Subjunctive in an indefinite relative clause - Although, Wallace concedes that although the relative clause is "indefinite", this does not mean that the object(s) of mercy are unknown. (Wall p 478) OT Reference: Ἐλεήσω ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ καὶ οἰκτιρήσω ὃν ἂν οἰκτίρω. This is taken from Ex 33:19 וְחַנֹּתִי֙ אֶת־אֲשֶׁ֣ר אָחֹ֔ן וְרִחַמְתִּ֖י אֶת־אֲשֶׁ֥ר אֲרַחֵֽם LXX: καὶ ἐλεήσω ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ, καὶ οἰκτιρήσω ὃν ἂν οἰκτίρω. This is an exact copy of the LXX and it only differs slightly from the MT. "How does this constitute an answer to the objection that God is unrighteous? God is righteous because he is committed to proclaiming his name and advertising his glory by showing his goodness, grace, and mercy to people as he freely chooses." (Schreiner p 507) "The freedom of God is communicated by the entire citation but particularly by the ἄν that follows both instances of ὅν ." (Schreiner p 507 [footnote]) "Human beings are apt to criticize God for excluding anyone, but this betrays a theology that views salvation as something God “ought” to bestow on all equally." (Schreiner 507) Rom 9:16 τοῦ θέλοντος... τοῦ τρέχοντος... τοῦ ἐλεῶντος θεοῦ. Genitives of source - (keyword: "dependent on") Source stresses cause. (Wall p 110) So Moo. Rom 9:17 διαγγελῇ BDAG - 1) to make someth. known far and wide, proclaim, spread the news concerning/about (Pind., N. 5, 3 in imagery of the poet’s sweet song speeding in every available vessel to announce a certain boy’s victory in the pancratium; Demosth. 12, 16; Jos., Vi. 98; Just., D. 60, 3) the reign of God Lk 9:60. τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ θεοῦ Ro 9:17 (Ex 9:16). Cp. Mk 5:19 v.l. OT Reference: Εἰς αὐτὸ τοῦτο ἐξήγειρά σε ὅπως ἐνδείξωμαι ἐν σοὶ τὴν δύναμίν μου καὶ ὅπως διαγγελῇ τὸ ὄνομά μου ἐν πάσῃ τῇ γῇ. This is taken from Ex 9:16 וְאוּלָ֗ם בַּעֲב֥וּר זֹאת֙ הֶעֱמַדְתִּ֔יךָ בַּעֲב֖וּר הַרְאֹתְךָ֣ אֶת־כֹּחִ֑י וּלְמַ֛עַן סַפֵּ֥ר שְׁמִ֖י בְּכָל־הָאָֽרֶץ׃ LXX: καὶ ἕνεκεν τούτου διετηρήθης , ἵνα ἐνδείξωμαι ἐν σοὶ τὴν ἰσχύν μου, καὶ ὅπως διαγγελῇ τὸ ὄνομά μου ἐν πάσῃ τῇ γῇ. The Hiphil verb הֶעֱמַדְתִּ֔יךָ is especially telling here. "I have caused you to stand" referring to Pharaoh's reign. It is God who raises up kings. Paul differs from the LXX " διετηρήθης" with his word " ἐξήγειρά" διετηρήθης BDAG 1) to keep someth. mentally with implication of duration, keep ἐξήγειρά BDAG 5) give one higher status, elevate Ro 9:17 "Some (Michel) think that Paul may be conforming more closely to the Hebrew." (Moo p 594 footnote) Piper (From The Freedom and Justice of God in Unconditional Election ) - This is a very strange argument. The question: "is there injustice with God?" is answered by the statement, "No, because God said to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy..." How is this an argument? The argument hangs on 2 keys: 1. The OT context of v. 15 2. Paul's understanding of righteousness. Key #1 - Paul is quoting Ex 33:19. What is the meaning in context? A: Moses is wrestling with God. "Please, show me your glory." God: "I will make all my goodness pass before you, and I will proclaim to you my name, I will declare to you 'I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy.'" Glory, goodness, name, freedom. The essence of my goodness and my name is, "I am free to show mercy on whom I will show mercy." It is a defining characteristic of what it means to be God. There is another place where Moses asks about God's name. Ex 3:14 "I am who I am." The structure of "I am who I am" and "I have mercy on whom I have mercy" are identical. One is a further description of the other. God is not only free in his being, he is free in his action. There are no constraints or controls on God. This is what it means to be God. Key #2 - What does Paul mean by righteousness? God's righteousness is his unwavering commitment to always uphold and display the honor of His name and the greatness of his glory. The most fundamentally right thing in the universe is to value most what is most valuable and then act accordingly. For God to value most what is most valuable is to value his name, his glory, his majesty. God's glory and name is his freedom in dispensing mercy. He does what he does without consulting anyone. His righteousness is to uphold that name. Therefore, God's righteousness is his upholding of his ability to unconditionally show mercy. Piper - Why is it good news that God unconditionally elects? 1. Because no unbeliever will ever be able to say, I am too bad to be elect. "If you knew the bad things that I have done, you would know that there is no possibility that I could be elect." 2. God's electing unconditionally preserves the praise of God at every level of salvation - not my intelligence or wisdom. The reason that is good news is that you were made for the joy of praising God, not being praised. We have reversed this in our self-esteem culture today. To be saved is to forget yourself in the joy of making much of God. 3. The roots of God's ability to save you go down extremely deep because they never depend on you. Rom 9:18 σκληρύνει BDAG - ⓐ act. α. w. a human subject τὶ something τὴν καρδίαν 1 Cl 51:3a; τὰς καρδίας (Ps 94:8) Hb 3:8, 15 ; 4:7. τὸν τράχηλον σκλ . stiffen the neck B 9:5 (Dt 10:16). β. w. God as subj. τινά harden the heart of someone (cp. Ex 7:3; 9:12 al.) Ro 9:18. —KSchmidt, D. Verstockung des Menschen durch Gott: TZ 1, ’45, 1–17.

11387299408322 1387299408178 Notes 2013-12-17 16:56:48 2014-02-13 03:44:42 Rom 9:14 Τί οὖν ἐροῦμεν; Deliberative Future - Asks a question that implies some doubt about the response. Can be either cognitive or volitional... Cognitive - "How will we?" Volitional - "Should we? Thus the force of such questions is one of "oughtness." (Wall p 570) Therefore, "What ought we to say?" seems the best translation. μὴ ἀδικία παρὰ τῷ θεῷ; παρὰ - BDAG: (B4) marker of connection of a quality or characteristic w. a pers., with (οὐκ) ἔστιν τι παρά τινι someth. is (not) with or in someone, someone has someth. (nothing) to do w. someth. (Demosth. 18, 277 εἰ ἔστι καὶ παρʼ ἐμοί τις ἐμπειρία ; Gen 24:25; Job 12:13; Ps 129:4 παρὰ σοι ὁ ἱλασμός ἐστιν ; Just., D. 82, 1 παρὰ … ἡμῖν … χαρίσματα ) οὐκ ἔστιν προσωπολημψία παρὰ τ. θεῷ Ro 2:11 (TestJob 43, 13). Cp. 9:14 ; Eph 6:9 ; Js 1:17. Sim. Mt 8:10 ; 2 Cor 1:17. Moo p 591 footnote: "It may reflect the Hebrew עִם" ἀδικία "I have already argued in the exegesis of 3:1–8 that that section anticipates the discussion in Rom. 9–11, and thus the echo of the question in 3:5 suggests that the connection between the two sections is not merely verbal. This has implications for our understanding of ἀδικία ( adikia , unrighteousness) in 9:14 since in chapter 3 God’s righteousness is related to his “faithfulness” (πίστις, pistis , 3:3) and “truth” (ἀληθής, alēthēs , true, 3:4; ἀλήθεια, alētheia , truth, 3:7; cf. Piper 1993: 94–96)." (Schreiner p 506) μὴ γένοιτο "Obviously, Paul's usage of μὴ γένοιτο is not the same as Luke's (see Luk 20:16). Here it indicates, as it usually does, his repulsion at the thought that someone might infer an erroneous conclusion from the previous argument. The apostle could have expressed his sentiment with ού μή γένηται, except that the optative seems to appeal to the volition: You should never conclude such a thing! God forbid that you should think this! No way! and the like." (Wall p 482) Rom 9:15 γὰρ "The γάρ ( gar , for) introducing verse 15 is most naturally interpreted as providing a reason or explanation why God is not unrighteous (Cranfield 1979: 482). Other verses that emulate the pattern of the question found in verse 14 are invariably followed with an explanation or reason that demonstrates the falsity of the wrong conclusion (cf. 3:5–6; 6:1–5; 7:7–11; cf. Piper 1993: 99). Thus verse 15 must be taken seriously as an argument that explains why God is not unrighteous to choose some and reject others regardless of their works." (Schreiner p 506) λέγει Perfective Present - Technically a "contextual perfective present" (introductory formula). The subject is assumed to be God, since the OT and God's words are one and the same to the author. ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ... ὃν ἂν οἰκτίρω. Subjunctive in an indefinite relative clause - Although, Wallace concedes that although the relative clause is "indefinite", this does not mean that the object(s) of mercy are unknown. (Wall p 478) OT Reference: Ἐλεήσω ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ καὶ οἰκτιρήσω ὃν ἂν οἰκτίρω. This is taken from Ex 33:19 וְחַנֹּתִי֙ אֶת־אֲשֶׁ֣ר אָחֹ֔ן וְרִחַמְתִּ֖י אֶת־אֲשֶׁ֥ר אֲרַחֵֽם LXX: καὶ ἐλεήσω ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ, καὶ οἰκτιρήσω ὃν ἂν οἰκτίρω. This is an exact copy of the LXX and it only differs slightly from the MT. "How does this constitute an answer to the objection that God is unrighteous? God is righteous because he is committed to proclaiming his name and advertising his glory by showing his goodness, grace, and mercy to people as he freely chooses." (Schreiner p 507) "The freedom of God is communicated by the entire citation but particularly by the ἄν that follows both instances of ὅν ." (Schreiner p 507 [footnote]) "Human beings are apt to criticize God for excluding anyone, but this betrays a theology that views salvation as something God “ought” to bestow on all equally." (Schreiner 507) Rom 9:16 τοῦ θέλοντος... τοῦ τρέχοντος... τοῦ ἐλεῶντος θεοῦ. Genitives of source - (keyword: "dependent on") Source stresses cause. (Wall p 110) So Moo. Rom 9:17 διαγγελῇ BDAG - 1) to make someth. known far and wide, proclaim, spread the news concerning/about (Pind., N. 5, 3 in imagery of the poet’s sweet song speeding in every available vessel to announce a certain boy’s victory in the pancratium; Demosth. 12, 16; Jos., Vi. 98; Just., D. 60, 3) the reign of God Lk 9:60. τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ θεοῦ Ro 9:17 (Ex 9:16). Cp. Mk 5:19 v.l. OT Reference: Εἰς αὐτὸ τοῦτο ἐξήγειρά σε ὅπως ἐνδείξωμαι ἐν σοὶ τὴν δύναμίν μου καὶ ὅπως διαγγελῇ τὸ ὄνομά μου ἐν πάσῃ τῇ γῇ. This is taken from Ex 9:16 וְאוּלָ֗ם בַּעֲב֥וּר זֹאת֙ הֶעֱמַדְתִּ֔יךָ בַּעֲב֖וּר הַרְאֹתְךָ֣ אֶת־כֹּחִ֑י וּלְמַ֛עַן סַפֵּ֥ר שְׁמִ֖י בְּכָל־הָאָֽרֶץ׃ LXX: καὶ ἕνεκεν τούτου διετηρήθης , ἵνα ἐνδείξωμαι ἐν σοὶ τὴν ἰσχύν μου, καὶ ὅπως διαγγελῇ τὸ ὄνομά μου ἐν πάσῃ τῇ γῇ. The Hiphil verb הֶעֱמַדְתִּ֔יךָ is especially telling here. "I have caused you to stand" referring to Pharaoh's reign. It is God who raises up kings. Paul differs from the LXX " διετηρήθης" with his word " ἐξήγειρά" διετηρήθης BDAG 1) to keep someth. mentally with implication of duration, keep ἐξήγειρά BDAG 5) give one higher status, elevate Ro 9:17 "Some (Michel) think that Paul may be conforming more closely to the Hebrew." (Moo p 594 footnote) Piper (From The Freedom and Justice of God in Unconditional Election ) - This is a very strange argument. The question: "is there injustice with God?" is answered by the statement, "No, because God said to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy..." How is this an argument? The argument hangs on 2 keys: 1. The OT context of v. 15 2. Paul's understanding of righteousness. Key #1 - Paul is quoting Ex 33:19. What is the meaning in context? A: Moses is wrestling with God. "Please, show me your glory." God: "I will make all my goodness pass before you, and I will proclaim to you my name, I will declare to you 'I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy.'" Glory, goodness, name, freedom. The essence of my goodness and my name is, "I am free to show mercy on whom I will show mercy." It is a defining characteristic of what it means to be God. There is another place where Moses asks about God's name. Ex 3:14 "I am who I am." The structure of "I am who I am" and "I have mercy on whom I have mercy" are identical. One is a further description of the other. God is not only free in his being, he is free in his action. There are no constraints or controls on God. This is what it means to be God. Key #2 - What does Paul mean by righteousness? God's righteousness is his unwavering commitment to always uphold and display the honor of His name and the greatness of his glory. The most fundamentally right thing in the universe is to value most what is most valuable and then act accordingly. For God to value most what is most valuable is to value his name, his glory, his majesty. God's glory and name is his freedom in dispensing mercy. He does what he does without consulting anyone. His righteousness is to uphold that name. Therefore, God's righteousness is his upholding of his ability to unconditionally show mercy. Piper - Why is it good news that God unconditionally elects? 1. Because no unbeliever will ever be able to say, I am too bad to be elect. "If you knew the bad things that I have done, you would know that there is no possibility that I could be elect." 2. God's electing unconditionally preserves the praise of God at every level of salvation - not my intelligence or wisdom. The reason that is good news is that you were made for the joy of praising God, not being praised. We have reversed this in our self-esteem culture today. To be saved is to forget yourself in the joy of making much of God. 3. The roots of God's ability to save you go down extremely deep because they never depend on you. Rom 9:18 σκληρύνει BDAG - ⓐ act. α. w. a human subject τὶ something τὴν καρδίαν 1 Cl 51:3a; τὰς καρδίας (Ps 94:8) Hb 3:8, 15 ; 4:7. τὸν τράχηλον σκλ . stiffen the neck B 9:5 (Dt 10:16). β. w. God as subj. τινά harden the heart of someone (cp. Ex 7:3; 9:12 al.) Ro 9:18. —KSchmidt, D. Verstockung des Menschen durch Gott: TZ 1, ’45, 1–17. notes