Main point summary
Those who are sent to proclaim the good news are those who, having heard the good news and believed with their heart and confessed with their mouth (Rom. 10:10, 14a-b), obey the good news, which is the word of faith (Rom. 10:8), the word of Christ; and those who have not obeyed are without excuse, for the word of Christ in creation, the law, and the prophets testify against them.
Πῶς οὖν ἐπικαλέσωνται εἰς ὃν οὐκ ἐπίστευσαν;
Therefore, they cannot call unto [the Lord] whom they have not believed,
πῶς δὲ πιστεύσωσιν οὗ οὐκ ἤκουσαν;
nor can they believe in [the Lord] whom they have not heard
πῶς δὲ ἀκούσωσιν χωρὶς κηρύσσοντος;
nor can they hear without one proclaiming,
πῶς δὲ κηρύξωσιν
nor can they proclaim
ἐὰν μὴ ἀποσταλῶσιν;
unless they are sent.
Just as it has been written,
ὡς ὡραῖοι οἱ πόδες τῶν εὐαγγελιζομένων [τὰ] ἀγαθά.
"Like beautiful things are the feet of those who proclaim good news of good things."
Ἀλλʼ οὐ πάντες ὑπήκουσαν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ.
But all have not obeyed the good news,
Ἠσαΐας γὰρ λέγει•
for Isaiah says,
κύριε, τίς ἐπίστευσεν τῇ ἀκοῇ ἡμῶν;
"Lord, who believed our report?
ἄρα ἡ πίστις ἐξ ἀκοῆς,
So, faith is from the report,
ἡ δὲ ἀκοὴ διὰ ῥήματος Χριστοῦ.
and now the report is through the word of Christ.
ἀλλὰ λέγω, μὴ οὐκ ἤκουσαν;
But I say, it is not the case that they have not heard, is it?
μενοῦνγε• εἰς πᾶσαν τὴν γῆν ἐξῆλθεν ὁ φθόγγος αὐτῶν
[By no means!] On the contrary, "Their voice has gone out into all the earth
καὶ εἰς τὰ πέρατα τῆς οἰκουμένης τὰ ῥήματα αὐτῶν.
and their words to the ends of the inhabited world."
ἀλλὰ λέγω, μὴ Ἰσραὴλ οὐκ ἔγνω;
But I say, it is not the case that Israel did not understand, is it?
πρῶτος Μωϋσῆς λέγει•
[By no means!] Moses says first,
ἐγὼ παραζηλώσω ὑμᾶς ἐπʼ οὐκ ἔθνει,
"I will make you jealous because of a nation that is not,
ἐπʼ ἔθνει ἀσυνέτῳ παροργιῶ ὑμᾶς.
because of a foolish nation I will make you angry."
Ἠσαΐας δὲ ἀποτολμᾷ καὶ λέγει• εὑρέθην [ἐν] τοῖς ἐμὲ μὴ ζητοῦσιν,
Now Isaiah is bold, and he says, "I was found by those who did not seek me,
ἐμφανὴς ἐγενόμην τοῖς ἐμὲ μὴ ἐπερωτῶσιν.
I became visible to those who did not ask me."
πρὸς δὲ τὸν Ἰσραὴλ λέγει•
Now he says [against]/concerning Israel,
ὅλην τὴν ἡμέραν ἐξεπέτασα τὰς χεῖράς μου πρὸς λαὸν ἀπειθοῦντα καὶ ἀντιλέγοντα .
"All the day long I stretch out my hands to disobedient and obstinate people."
This series of rhetorical questions makes a collective point that καθως then subordinates. How does this stem from the statement in 13 that the inference ουν is coming off of, "Everyone who call upon the name of the Lord will be saved?"
Explicitly makes this προς take an accusative object. Could be an indicator that this is speaking "against" Israel and not merely "concerning"
Piper, Let the Nations Be Glad!, 142–47
This would suggest that Paul is referring to hearing the person rather than hearing of the person. This seems like it fits more with the context of Isaiah as the one who publishes peace seems to be the Servant. But in this context, the genitive plural suggests not "one" publishing peace but "ones" publishing peace. How does this make sense of Isaiah?
What is this actually coming off of? Tom thinks there is an implied clause? What is the implied clause, and what is the overall function of vv.14-15 which precede this?
Grammar Notes, Questions
Parsing εγνω - aor act ind 3 sg - "to understand" αποτολμᾳ - pres act ind 3 sg - "to be bold" εμφανης - masc sg nom - "visible" Translation How then should they call unto whom they have not believed? Now, how should they believe one whom they have not heard? Now how should they hear without one proclaiming? Now how should they proclaim unless they are sent? Just as it has been written, "As the feet of those who proclaim good news of good things are beautiful." But all have not obeyed the good news, for Isaiah says, "Lord, who believed that which was heard from us? So, faith is from hearing, and hearing is through the word of Christ. But I say, it is not the case that they have not heard, is it? On the contrary, "Their voice has gone out into all the earth and their words to the ends of the inhabited world." But I say, it is not the case that Israel did not understand, is it? Moses says first, "I will make you jealous because of a nation that is not, because of a foolish nation I will amke you angry." Now Isaiah is bold, and he says, "I was found by those who did not seek me, I became visible to those who did not ask me." Now he says to Israel, "All the day long I stretch out my hands to disobedient and obstinate people." Grammatical Notes -εις phrase in v. 14? -ως and αγαθα in v. 15 -τω ευαγγελιω in v. 16? --> Dative of reference? -" The question is put in a negative form: οὐκ ἤκουσαν and introduced with another negative particle ( μή , implying that the question should be answered in the negative: “it is not the case, then, that they have ‘not heard,’ is it?”" (Moo, 670, fn 31) -επ᾽ ουκ εθνει in v. 19? --> Relatively rare use of the singular form of εθνος (32 singular, 130 plural) -Matt. 21:43; Acts 10:35; Acts 17:26; 1 Pet. 2:9 & Ex. 19:6; -Gen. 12:2; Gen 17:20 vs. Gen. 18:20; Gen. 46:3 vs. Gen. 21:13, 18; Ex. 23:22 (LXX); -προς in v. 21? Questions 1. How are all of the OT quotations contributing to the argument? 2. I have a lot of grammatical questions above that I want to explore, some of which seem to have significant interpretational consequences.
Exegetical Notes -14c the κηρυσσοντος is the only singular participle in that cluster of questions. Perhaps "the one proclaiming" is Christ himself? -Rom. 6:12, 16-17 are the only other uses of υπακουω in Romans. v. 18b -" The question is put in a negative form: οὐκ ἤκουσαν and introduced with another negative particle ( μή , implying that the question should be answered in the negative: “it is not the case, then, that they have ‘not heard,’ is it?”" (Moo, 670, fn 31) v. 19b -expects a negative answer to the question "Has Israel not understood?" due to the μη which fronts the question. This means that the quotations that follow must support the fact that Israel has indeed understood. Questions 1. How are all of the OT quotations contributing to the argument? Isa. 52:7 in Rom. 10:15 -Isaiah originally refers to ONE messenger (Motyer, 372) --> This is likely Christ, the Servant, publishing peace and bringing good news -Paul refers to many messengers --> This follows from "all who call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." --> All those who identify with Jesus have taken up his mission as heralds of the good news --> "the apostolic mission...is the counterpart to the prophetic mission. Paul again uses the text typologically, finding in it a pattern of the eschatological work of God (Seifrid, 662)." --> "How can they believe in him whom they have not heard?" --> The many messengers are the voice of Christ himself (Acts 9:4) Isa. 53:1 in Rom. 10:16 -Explains the fact that "all have not obeyed the good news." --> Rom. 6:16 says that those who obey are on the path to righteousness, and those who have not obeyed but submitted themselves to sin are not on the path to righteousness but to death. --> Rom. 1:5 - the obedience of faith among all the nations for the sake of his name --> "All" have not obeyed the good news CONTRASTED with "All" who call upon the name of the Lord obtaining righteousness and salvation (contra Moo, 664, where he continues to put a seemingly unnatural and unwarranted emphasis on the limited number of Jews who have believed) --> υπακουω is in parallel with πιστευω --> believing is in parallel with obeying --> those who believe are as those who obey --> both obtain righteousness and salvation -The inference that comes next is that belief comes from hearing, and hearing from the word of Christ --> ρημα of faith 10:8 returns here as ρημα of Christ ... what is the connection? -Significant that he quotes the introduction to the "Suffering Servant" passage in Isaiah (Seifrid, 663) --> the "report" not believed and the "good news" not obeyed is the Jesus who by his death and resurrection has made many to be "accounted righteous" --> This proclamation is representative of the substantive, extra-textual Jesus who came and lived and died and demands allegiance *Psalm 19:4 in Rom. 10:18 -The ρημα of the heavens anticipates the ρημα of Christ (Seifrid, 663) --> Deut. 32:21 in Rom. 10:19 -Who is this "nation" mentioned? --> Relatively rare use of the singular form of εθνος (32 singular, 130 plural) ----> Matt. 21:43; Acts 10:35; Acts 17:26; 1 Pet. 2:9 & Ex. 19:6; ----> Gen. 12:2; Gen 17:20 vs. Gen. 18:20; Gen. 46:3 vs. Gen. 21:13, 18; Ex. 23:22 (LXX); --> This is not the Gentiles but the new people of God, all who have called upon the name of the Lord and have been saved (also Rom. 9:23-26) -Context of Deut. foretells Israel's exile and destruction at the hands of their enemies...the emphasis is on Israel's rebellion against the Lord; Somehow he is identifying the new "nation" with the enemies of Israel? I don't get what he's doing here. (Seifrid 664-65) *Isa. 65:1 in Rom. 10:20 -Appears to be at least somewhat connected to Rom. 9:30 and again 9:23-26 --> To those who were not the people of God, who were not seeking him (including both Jews and the nations), he has revealed himself --> Ethnic Israel has no right to claim the promises or favor of God on the basis of their genetic lineage alone --> Spiritual Israel has always enjoyed the benefits of relationship with God on the basis of grace -God's dealings with Israel in the past are being presented as typological indicators of his dealings with them now (Seifrid, 666) *Isa. 65:2 in Rom. 10:21 -Introduced by the formula προς δε τον Ισραηλ, making the accusative explicit, perhaps to emphasize that this word is spoken against Israel, indicting them and leaving them "without excuse" (1:20-23) --> Even if προς does not indicate a speaking against Israel, the content of the quote clearly indicates the problem: it is not that Israel did not know, but that they have disobeyed and denied the word of faith, the word of Christ, rather than believing. 2. I have a lot of grammatical questions above that I want to explore, some of which seem to have significant interpretational consequences. εις phrase in v. 14? --> Seems to be "Reference/Respect" (Wallace, 369) οὗ in v. 14b --> Genitive direct object: they cannot believe the one whom they have not heard (rather than the one of whom they have not heard) ως and αγαθα in v. 15 - ως functions comparatively, not to add emphasis - αγαθα seems to be an accusative of reference, "those who preach good news concerning good things " -τω ευαγγελιω in v. 16? --> Dative of direct object -επ᾽ ουκ εθνει in v. 19? --> Relatively rare use of the singular form of εθνος (32 singular, 130 plural) -Matt. 21:43; Acts 10:35; Acts 17:26; 1 Pet. 2:9 & Ex. 19:6; -Gen. 12:2; Gen 17:20 vs. Gen. 18:20; Gen. 46:3 vs. Gen. 21:13, 18; Ex. 23:22 (LXX); προς in v. 21? -Paul e xplicitly makes this προς take an accusative object. Could be an indicator that this is speaking "against" Israel and not merely "concerning"