Main point summary
Paul Argues that God's Word has not failed, because not all Israel are Children of God (Israel)
Οὐχ οἷον δὲ ὅτι ἐκπέπτωκεν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ.
But it is not as though the word of God has failed.
οὐ γὰρ πάντες οἱ ἐξ Ἰσραὴλ οὗτοι Ἰσραήλ•
For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel,
οὐδʼ ὅτι εἰσὶν σπέρμα Ἀβραὰμ πάντες τέκνα,
and not all are children of Abraham o because they are his offspring,
ἀλλʼ• ἐν Ἰσαὰκ κληθήσεταί σοι σπέρμα.
but p “Through Isaac shall your offspring be named.”
τοῦτʼ ἔστιν, οὐ τὰ τέκνα τῆς σαρκὸς ταῦτα τέκνα τοῦ θεοῦ
This means that it is not the children of the flesh who are the children of God,
ἀλλὰ τὰ τέκνα τῆς ἐπαγγελίας λογίζεται εἰς σπέρμα.
but q the children of the promise are counted as offspring.
ἐπαγγελίας γὰρ ὁ λόγος οὗτος• κατὰ τὸν καιρὸν τοῦτον ἐλεύσομαι καὶ ἔσται τῇ Σάρρᾳ υἱός.
For this is what the promise said: r “About this time next year I will return, and Sarah shall have a son.”
Οὐ μόνον δέ,
And not only so,
ἀλλὰ καὶ Ῥεβέκκα ἐξ ἑνὸς κοίτην ἔχουσα, Ἰσαὰκ τοῦ πατρὸς ἡμῶν•
but s also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac,
μήπω γὰρ γεννηθέντων μηδὲ πραξάντων τι ἀγαθὸν ἢ φαῦλον,
though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—
ἵνα ἡ κατʼ ἐκλογὴν πρόθεσις τοῦ θεοῦ μένῃ,
in order that God’s purpose of election might continue,
οὐκ ἐξ ἔργων
not because of works
ἀλλʼ ἐκ τοῦ καλοῦντος,
but because of t him who calls—
ἐρρέθη αὐτῇ ὅτι ὁ μείζων δουλεύσει τῷ ἐλάσσονι,
she was told, u “The older will serve the younger.”
καθὼς γέγραπται• τὸν Ἰακὼβ ἠγάπησα, τὸν δὲ Ἠσαῦ ἐμίσησα.
As it is written, v “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”
Diagram Rom v6-13
1. What would give rise to the assertion of 9:6a that “God’s word has not fallen”? What does Paul mean by “word”? I think That by "word" here Paul is referring to the Covenants of the given Law, as well as the Promises referred to in Verse 4 and 5. From his argument in v1-3 one can deduce that not all Israel will be saved. Therefore, because he states in verse 4 and 5 that the covenants of the Law as well as the promises belong to Israel, one could be tempted to ask if God's promises to Israel have failed? or if he has failed to keep his covenant with the Patriarchs? Hence, the assertion that "God's word has not fallen" in verse 6a from the immediate context refers to these Covenants of the law and God's Promises. According to Schriener, Paul affirms: “It is by no means the case that the word of God has fallen.” Ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ ( the word of God) refers to the promises of God, specifically the promise that Israel will be saved (cf. Rom. 11:26–29 ). Despite the unbelief of a majority of ethnic Israel, God’s promise of salvation to Israel has not faltered. This phrase is materially parallel to τὰ λόγια τοῦ θεοῦ (the oracles of God) in 3:2, which I argued also referred to God’s promises to save Israel. In addition, 9:6a constitutes the theme of all of 9:6b–11:32, reaching its climax, as already intimated, in 11:26–29, where the covenantal promise effects the eschatological salvation of Israel. The unbelief of Israel does not nullify God’s promises, because nothing can thwart his word; what he has promised will certainly come to pass. It is clear from the Immediate context therefore that "the word of God" in verse 6a refers to the Promises of God ( and his covenants with the Patriarchs) in verse 4.